Anybody wise to the Bible..........?

Oh do get a life, please.

It has to do with the 70 weeks, which are actually years. There are 7 of them, so 490 years. The "time, times and half a time" is how they are divided - the first being seven weeks (49 years), the second being 62 weeks (434 years) and the third being one week (7 years).

The time and times is 69 weeks with 7 years in each week. According to the Jewish calendar there were 360 days in a year. So 69X7X360= 173,880 days. The passage here says that after the decree to rebuild the temple, there will be this 173,880 day period for the Jews to finish transgression. It says, "From the issuing of the decree to restore and rebuild Jerusalem until the Anointed One, the ruler, comes, there will be seven 'sevens' and sixty-two 'sevens'" (69 weeks, or that 173,880 day period). So in short, from the decree to rebuild the temple until the Messiah comes, there will be 173,880 days. On March 5, 444 BC Artaxerxes's decreed to rebuild the temple. Now from 444BC to AD 33 (the crucifixion) there were 476 years (there is no year 'zero' remember). 476 years from the decree to rebuild the temple till the crucifixion. 476 times 365.2421989 (a full year) = 173,855 days. Close to the 173, 880 right? Well Artaxerxes made his decree on March 5, and the crucifixion happened on March 30, which is 25 days. 25 + 173,855 = 173,880 days. So the time and times is 173,880 days from the decree to rebuild the temple until the crucifixion. All that remains is the "half a time", which is seven years, which is said to be the time of the antichrist when he will rule for 7 years. This seven year period is supposed to be broken into three main events - it begins with the rapture, the antichrist rebuilds the temple and declares himself God, then it ends with the return of the true Christ.

Understand? Me neither.

Truly, I am surprised that you received so few answers.

The truth is, there is no sound scriptural support for any particular interpretation of this verse. In other words, many say they *know* what it means, but none actually do - they're all guessing, and they want others to agree with their guess.

This does not mean that someone doesn't have the correct interpretation. It simply means that no one can *prove*, using scripture or anything else, that they have the correct interpretation.

Just study the foundation of anyone's "I have the interpretation". I'm sure you will discover that it is based on assumption (at best) or inaccurate information (most commonly). If not, please e-mail me when you discover an interpretation that appears sound.

Jim, http://www.life-after-harry-potter.com/

In revelations it is speaking of a woman who hid from the serpent in the wilderness. In bible prophecy a woman is said to be the church (eph 5:25). A serpent is the devil. This verse means that the true church of Christ was hiding in the wilderness. Time is ending, i dont know how much exactly only God himself knows, I dont mean to scare you or anyone else just to warn you so you can prepare yourself for God. In revelations 12:17 It explains that the devil is angered then with the church and wants to make war with the rest of her people, those who keep the commandments of God and have the testimony of Christ. There is only one church like that, and i know its mine. In the book of Daniel it talks about the laws of God being changed. There is an great website that will teach you and go into further details on things like this. I suggest checking it out so you may find a book or DVD which further explains this topic. www.amazingfacts.com

I know of no one "wiser to the Bible" than the man who explains all of Revelation in plainness. The book below explains EXACTLY what "time, times, and half a time" means. I suggest you get it and read it-it's free online. It is all based on scriptures, since that is what John the Beloved referenced (the Old Testament) for his symbols and riddles.

Here is just a snippet:

John has two main points of reference from which he formulated his thoughts and words into the presentation of his message: 1) The truth, or reality, and 2) The Old Testament. From these two points of reference came John’s entire message, as all the symbolism and figurative expressions used by him can be found in Old Testament writings, which were the only form of written scripture available in his day.

...A thorough explanation of “time, times, and half of time” will be given in the commentary of chapter 11.

...The Jewish calendar has twelve months of exactly 30 days each (there is no leap year in the Jewish calendar). Therefore, “forty-two months” is “a thousand two hundred and threescore days.” “Forty-two months” is also “three and a half” years. “Three and a half” is equal to one (time) plus two (times) plus one-half (half a time). Therefore, when John uses any of these terms, it is given to denote the same amount of time. When he intended to present a specific time period in Revelation, John reverts back to using Daniel’s timetable and the beginning reference point Daniel established as the fulfillment of certain prophecies.

...According to his timetable, Daniel reveals to the world the exact year when Christ was to be born into the world, whereas John reveals the exact year when Christ will return. Here’s how they reveal these important times and dates by using these time frames:

The book is amazing. It can answer your question.

Good question!

I'm glad to see more people reading and studying their Bibles.

I can only speculate as to what this means. One theory is that it is 31/2 years. This is because in Daniel 4:32 it uses the term seven times to represent seven years.

Dan 4:32 "And they shall drive thee from men, and thy dwelling shall be with the beasts of the field: they shall make thee to eat grass as oxen, and seven times shall pass over thee, until thou know that the most High ruleth in the kingdom of men, and giveth it to whomsoever he will."

By this logic "time,(one year) times (two years)and half a time(1/2 year)" would be the correct interpretation.

But I have also though it could be three time periods separated by an unknown amount of time.

Sharky, I used to study all of that.

There's three positions

1. 3 1/2 years

2. 2500 years

3. It's a metaphor.

I've come to be convinced of the #1 position for many reasons too numerous to list. You're going to have to do some real study to come to a solid position on it, just because the scripture is written based on a Hebrew calendar, and requires you to understand other prophecy.

Chuck Missler is helpful on this, because he's done a lot of hte homework on it. (www.khouse.org)

"A time, and times, and half a time"... That is, three years and a half; which is supposed to be the length of the duration of the persecution of Antichrist.

Three and one-half years.